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No, but perhaps because there is the 'reasonable cause' clause. I'll gladly believe 'so as to' = intent, if there any case law where this has been tested.

I'm aware that's one way to interpret it, but has it been tested? The other interpretation is the simple cause-and-effect link.

'near' is deliberately undefined as well. And nowhere does it say that the person you've annoyed/frightened/endangered needs to be the owner/occupier of whichever dwelling you were 'near' when such...

Maybe...

http://uploads.tapatalk-cdn.com/20161017/04f6c85bc3b563f42df918d959594fea.jpg

1 - discharges a firearm? Yes.
2 - in or near a dwellinghouse; or a public place? Yes
3 - so as to...